I'm not arguing 1941 with you one little bit. All I was saying was, that the only reason he came to power in 1941 is because his daddy seized power in the 1920's, AND the brits and soviets were so busy fighting the Nazis that they didn't have the time or resources to occupy Iran in a colonial administration.
Perhaps. Nevertheless "seizing power" is the usual methods for monarchs to become monarchs. It is also the usual method for a country to become a republic.
Without someone seizing power, no human being would ever have power over another.
You can doubt the legitimacy if seizing power per se, but it is weird to doubt the legitimacy of exactly this dynasty based on that.
He wasn't so much declared Shah as they surrendered power to him. They did this because he lead a military campaign in the years previous to take power, forcibly remove the previous monarch and install himself. Therefore, neither he, nor his son, had any legitimate claim to power
We have been through this.
The fact that both the late Shah and his father modernised Iran, fought the Nazis, implemented land reform, advocated and implemented equal rights for women, promoted religious tolerance, allowed for a high level of personal liberty, and created a public healthcare system totally legitimises the Shah's rule in my book.
I happen to believe in a few principles of just government. Republicanism (i.e. insistence that form of government must be a republic) is not one of them. Democracy, for me, is just a useful tool to work towards the other principles. But equal rights for women, religious tolerance, a somewhat just system of land ownership, a high level of personal liberty, and a basic public healthcare system are, for me, principles of just government.
Any individual or group who can stay in power, implement those principles, and do so while killing or torturing fewer people than the alternative regimes would, is the legitimate government.
I'll give you examples:
Imperial government of Germany between 1870 and 1919: Was legitimate because it worked towards equal rights for women to some extend, promoted religious tolerance, implemented some level of justice in the land question, and offered a healthcare system better than most other countries'.
Weimar Republic government: Was legitimate for the same reasons. The fact that it replaced an existing legitimate government speaks against it though.
The would-be communist governments that could have replaced Wimar: Were illegitimate because they refused to promote personal liberty or a just system of land ownership (control of all the land by a communist dictator is not "just"). They were also anti-religious which fails them on the religious tolerance test.
Hitler's government: Was illegitimate since it killed and tortured more than the alternatives, didn't respect religious tolerance, didn't promote personal liberty, didn't implement a public healthcare system (which must be open to all races and religions to be accepted here), replaced an existing legitimate government, and didn't respect women's rights as man's equals.
The Federal Republic: Is legitimate since it replaced an illegitimate government etc.
East Germany: Was illegitimate since it didn't implement a just system of land ownership (that feisty communist dictator again), didn't respect personal liberty, and killed and tortured more than the Federal Republic obvious alternative.
You see? It's fairly simple.